• Not_mikey@slrpnk.netEnglish
      8·
      9 months ago

      I know rural western states in the u.s. like Montana gave women the right to vote early since there gender ratios was heavily male and they wanted to attract more women to the state. Australia was probably in a similar frontier stage at that point so I wonder what there gender ratios were then.

      • marine_mustang@sh.itjust.worksEnglish
        6·
        9 months ago

        You’re probably thinking of Wyoming. Wikipedia: The first state to grant women the right to vote had been Wyoming,[6] in 1869, followed by Utah[7] in 1870, Colorado in 1893, Idaho in 1896, Washington[8] in 1910, California[9] in 1911, Oregon[10] and Arizona[11] in 1912, Montana in 1914, North Dakota, New York,[12] and Rhode Island[13] in 1917, Louisiana,[14] Oklahoma,[15] and Michigan[16] in 1918.[17]

        Nationwide in the US, it was 1920.

  • bionicjoeyEnglish
    12·
    9 months ago

    Makes sense. The suffrage movement was pretty closely tied to the depopulation of men caused by WW1&2. Since Switzerland didn’t participate, they would have been insulated from the societal forces that brought about women’s suffrage.

  • Spendrill@lemm.eeEnglish
    8·
    9 months ago

    Pero no

    Women’s suffrage in Francoist Spain and the democratic transition was constrained by age limits, definitions around heads of household and a lack of elections. Women got the right to vote in Spain in 1933 as a result of legal changes made during the Second Spanish Republic. Women lost most of their rights after Franco came to power in 1939 at the end of the Spanish Civil War, with the major exception that women did not universally lose their right to vote. Repression of the women’s vote occurred nevertheless as the dictatorship held no national democratic elections between 1939 and 1977.