I’m sorry you haven’t read a single article with reliable numbers and statistics, and rely on bullshit anti-communist propaganda.
Want some sources on that? Go read “Human rights in the soviet union” by Albert Szymanski, it’s an extremely well-sourced book with hundreds of references. Please tell me how many homeless people there were in a country that outlawed unemployment and where housing costed to the average family 3-5% of the monthly income. Please tell me how there could be hungry people in the USSR when the agricultural output of contemporary Russia still hasn’t reached the levels of Soviet Russia, and food prices were maintained basically constant since 1940 to 1980.
Genius, the USSR was a preindustrial society before the 40s, there were quite literally no tractors on the fields, and the former Russian Empire that they had just barely left behind had 10 famines a century. Before the advent of industrialization of agriculture, pesticides, fertilizers and tractors, humans would go through easily 3 famines throughout their lives, more so in hard to farm areas like the fucking cold Russia. You quite literally can’t eliminate famine until you industrialize, but once they did, they eliminated hunger everywhere they had influence… while imperial England kept murdering Indians of hunger by the millions by not industrializing their country (like Soviets did in Central Asia)
I love permaculture and regenerative agriculture as much as anyone, the reality is that none of those techniques were developed in the early 20th century, and all countries that escaped hunger and famine did so through the industrialization of agriculture
I’m sorry you haven’t read a single article with reliable numbers and statistics, and rely on bullshit anti-communist propaganda.
Want some sources on that? Go read “Human rights in the soviet union” by Albert Szymanski, it’s an extremely well-sourced book with hundreds of references. Please tell me how many homeless people there were in a country that outlawed unemployment and where housing costed to the average family 3-5% of the monthly income. Please tell me how there could be hungry people in the USSR when the agricultural output of contemporary Russia still hasn’t reached the levels of Soviet Russia, and food prices were maintained basically constant since 1940 to 1980.
Hmm, that’s weird, why would you specifically pick 1940 as your starting date? I wonder if anything incredibly bad happened in the 30s?
Genius, the USSR was a preindustrial society before the 40s, there were quite literally no tractors on the fields, and the former Russian Empire that they had just barely left behind had 10 famines a century. Before the advent of industrialization of agriculture, pesticides, fertilizers and tractors, humans would go through easily 3 famines throughout their lives, more so in hard to farm areas like the fucking cold Russia. You quite literally can’t eliminate famine until you industrialize, but once they did, they eliminated hunger everywhere they had influence… while imperial England kept murdering Indians of hunger by the millions by not industrializing their country (like Soviets did in Central Asia)
Thinking you need fertilizer is the problem.
I love permaculture and regenerative agriculture as much as anyone, the reality is that none of those techniques were developed in the early 20th century, and all countries that escaped hunger and famine did so through the industrialization of agriculture