Absolutely false. The workers were in no way the beneficiaries of either event. All you’ve done is prove my point that it won’t work. Reality is that outside of small Clan level groups, where Familial ties can in some cases prevent the most violent abuser from taking control, it is simply against Human Nature to cooperate equitably.
I didn’t measure it. In fact it had nothing to do with any of the topics you brought up. It is a side effect of a failure to regulate as a result of corruption, not an inherent feature of anything. Supposed “Communist” USSR was in fact resplendent with income disparity and never, not even for a second, had equitable distribution of anything whatsoever.
No but how wouldyou measure it. I linked you a paper on the wealth distribution in Russia over the past 120 years which showed that the fairest distribution was durin the soviet era. You dismissed that without comment, suggesting that when you asked me to “show on the map where that has worked out for the betterment of the workers” you meant something else. So my question is, how would you like the “betterment of the workers” shown?
If you look at the feudal society before the October revolution and then during the soviet era the change would seem miraculous.
Same for the chinese people casting off the brutal feudal society.
Really any communist revolution, can you show me one were the workers were worse off after the revolution?
Just look at the stats for the USSR for example: http://www.socialisteconomist.com/2017/10/how-ussr-radically-reduced-income.html
The actual paper I meant to link: https://wid.world/news-article/new-paper-inequality-series-russia/
Absolutely false. The workers were in no way the beneficiaries of either event. All you’ve done is prove my point that it won’t work. Reality is that outside of small Clan level groups, where Familial ties can in some cases prevent the most violent abuser from taking control, it is simply against Human Nature to cooperate equitably.
I mean if it’s not income disparity then how would you measure equitable distribution of capital in a society?
I didn’t measure it. In fact it had nothing to do with any of the topics you brought up. It is a side effect of a failure to regulate as a result of corruption, not an inherent feature of anything. Supposed “Communist” USSR was in fact resplendent with income disparity and never, not even for a second, had equitable distribution of anything whatsoever.
No but how wouldyou measure it. I linked you a paper on the wealth distribution in Russia over the past 120 years which showed that the fairest distribution was durin the soviet era. You dismissed that without comment, suggesting that when you asked me to “show on the map where that has worked out for the betterment of the workers” you meant something else. So my question is, how would you like the “betterment of the workers” shown?
So, doctored bullshit from renown failed state propaganda is your proof? The 1960’s called and want their utopian bullshit back.
Ah yes, the old “if the data doesn’t align with my worldview then it must be false” approach to critical thinking