• DeadHorseX@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    1
    arrow-down
    6
    ·
    edit-2
    10 months ago

    The term has come to be exclusively applied, but at a technical level the word’s construction relates to a broader set of people who are closely related to the population it is exclusively applied to.

    This isn’t true. It surprises me that you understand antisemitism so poorly given your own exposure to the risk of it.

    https://www.adl.org/spelling-antisemitism-vs-anti-semitism

    The word “Semitic” was first used by a German historian in 1781 to bind together languages of Middle Eastern origin that have some linguistic similarities. The speakers of those languages, however, do not otherwise have shared heritage or history. There is no such thing as a Semitic peoplehood. Additionally, one could speak a Semitic language and still have anti-Semitic views.

    And in 1879, German journalist Wilhelm Marr coined “Antisemitismus” to mean hatred of the Jewish “race,” adding racial and pseudo-scientific overtones to the animus behind the word. But hatred toward Jews, both today and in the past, goes beyond any false perception of a Jewish race; it is wrapped up in complicated historical, political, religious, and social dynamics.