• Malgas@beehaw.org
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      2 days ago

      Usually, yes, but where coffee is concerned (labeling on coffee makers, for example) a “cup” is traditionally 3/4 of that.

      So it’s ambiguous if they don’t specify further. (Do they? The link isn’t loading for me.)

      • SaveTheTuaHawk
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        2 days ago

        236ml in the US because it makes no sense.

        No, they only surveyed using the word “cup” , another typical shit epidemiology study.

        People use caffeine to self medicate, cause and effect are therefore impossible to determine.